Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 29.06.2025 05:36
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Early-season heat dome brings highest temperatures in years to parts of Eastern U.S. - NPR
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While emptying a house, have you ever seen something in it that blew your mind?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?